UPSC 2026. Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:

1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the ‘Constitution of India’. — WRONG — Article 393
2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed. — WRONG — Article 395
3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India. — WRONG — Article 394

Answer: (b) There is no correct statement.

Remember: Part XXII: 393 = short title · 394 = commencement (26 Jan 1950; some parts 26 Nov 1949) · 395 = repeals GoI Act 1935 + Indian Independence Act 1947.

UPSC 2021. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?

Answer: (b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic

Remember: Preamble amended ONCE — 42nd (1976): + Socialist + Secular + Integrity. On 26 Jan 1950: Sovereign Democratic Republic.

UPSC 2017. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

Answer: (b) Economic liberty

Remember: Justice = S-E-P · Liberty = T-E-B-F-W (thought, expression, belief, faith, worship) · Equality = status + opportunity.

UPSC 2021. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile. — CORRECT
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State. — WRONG
3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances. — WRONG

Answer: (a) 1 only

Remember: Lose citizenship: Renunciation (voluntary) · Termination (takes another country’s) · Deprivation (by government order, for naturalised/registered citizens).

UPSC 2024. Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

Answer: (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Remember: Provisional President = Sachchidananda Sinha · President = Rajendra Prasad · Drafting Committee = Ambedkar · Constitutional Adviser = B.N. Rau.

UPSC 2024. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

Answer: (d) Article 21

Remember: Privacy = Art. 21 (Puttaswamy, 2017, 9 judges; overruled M.P. Sharma 1954 and Kharak Singh 1962).

UPSC 2024. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

Answer: (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.

Remember: Habeas corpus = produce the body · Mandamus = do your public duty · Prohibition = stop (pending) · Certiorari = quash (decided) · Quo warranto = by what authority?

UPSC 2022. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty. — CORRECT
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company. — WRONG
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto. — CORRECT

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Remember: Quo warranto = only writ any person may seek. Mandamus = public duty only; not against President/Governor, not for contracts.

UPSC 2020. Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?

Answer: (d) Right to equality

Remember: Equality 14–18 · Freedom 19–22 · Exploitation 23–24 · Religion 25–28 · Culture & Education 29–30 · Remedies 32.

UPSC 2021. What is the position of the Right to Property in India?

Answer: (b) Legal right available to any person

Remember: Property = Art. 300A, Part XII · legal/constitutional right · any person · 44th Amendment 1978.

UPSC 2025. Consider the following pairs: (Provision in the Constitution of India — Stated under)

1. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : The Directive Principles of the State Policy — CORRECT — Art. 50
2. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture : The Fundamental Duties — CORRECT — Art. 51A(f)
3. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights — CORRECT — Art. 24

Answer: (c) All the three

Remember: Separation of judiciary = Art. 50 (DPSP) · composite culture = 51A(f) (FD) · child under 14 in factory = Art. 24 (FR).

UPSC 2020. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

Answer: (b) a Directive Principle of State Policy

Remember: Art. 50 = separate judiciary from executive (DPSP). Art. 51 = promote international peace (DPSP).

UPSC 2015. The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its

Answer: (b) Directive Principles of State Policy

Remember: Welfare State = DPSP (Art. 38 onwards) · Art. 37 = non-justiciable but fundamental in governance.

UPSC 2012. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture — DUTY — 51A(f)
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice — NOT A DUTY — it is Art. 46 (DPSP)
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry — DUTY — 51A(h)
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity — DUTY — 51A(j)

Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

Remember: FD = Art. 51A, Part IVA · 42nd (1976) 10 duties + 86th (2002) the 11th · citizens only · Swaran Singh Committee.

UPSC 2017. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties. — WRONG
2. They are correlative to legal duties. — WRONG

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Remember: Fundamental Duties: non-justiciable · no enforcement machinery in the Constitution · Parliament may give them effect by ordinary law.

UPSC 2025. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

1. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. — CORRECT
2. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. — WRONG
3. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. — CORRECT

Answer: (c) I and III only

Remember: Ordinance = Act of Parliament for force and limits · can amend Acts · retrospective · cannot abridge FRs · cannot amend the Constitution.

UPSC 2025. Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:

1. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review. — CORRECT
2. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government. — WRONG

Answer: (a) I only

Remember: Art. 72 (President) > Art. 161 (Governor): only the President — court-martial + pardon of death sentence. Both act on advice; both reviewable on narrow grounds.

UPSC 2015. Consider the following statements:

1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister. — WRONG — Art. 53
2. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. — WRONG

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Remember: Vested in the President (53) · exercised on advice of the CoM (74) · actions in the President’s name (77) · Civil Services Board = Cabinet Secretary.

UPSC 2014. Consider the following statements:

1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. — CORRECT — Art. 77(3)
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister. — WRONG — Art. 77(1)

Answer: (a) 1 only

Remember: Art. 77 (Union) / Art. 166 (State): action in the President’s/Governor’s name · Business Rules by the President/Governor.

UPSC 2013. Consider the following statements:

1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament. — WRONG — Art. 75(3)
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India. — CORRECT — Art. 75(2)
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation. — CORRECT — Art. 78

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Remember: CoM → Lok Sabha collectively (75(3)) · Ministers → President’s pleasure (75(2)) · PM → duty to inform the President (78).

UPSC 2026. Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:

1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House. — WRONG — that is a starred question
2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer. — WRONG — starred = oral
3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question. — CORRECT

Answer: (c) There is only one correct statement.

Remember: Starred = * = spoken (oral + supplementaries) · Unstarred = written, no supplementaries · Short-notice = urgent, < 10 days.

UPSC 2025. Consider the following statements:

1. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution. — CORRECT — Art. 94 proviso
2. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately. — WRONG
3. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. — CORRECT — Art. 94(c)

Answer: (c) I and III only

Remember: Speaker: stays after dissolution till the new House’s first sitting · removed by effective majority + 14 days’ notice · no duty to quit the party.

UPSC 2022. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency. — NOT EXCLUSIVE
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers. — EXCLUSIVE
3. To impeach the President of India. — NOT EXCLUSIVE

Answer: (b) 2 only

Remember: LS only: no-confidence · money bills · demands for grants · disapprove Emergency. RS only: Art. 249 · Art. 312 · VP removal starts there.

UPSC 2015. Consider the following statements:

1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill. — CORRECT — Art. 109
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants. — CORRECT — Art. 113
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement. — WRONG

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Remember: Rajya Sabha & money: discuss yes · vote on demands no · Money Bill = recommend in 14 days, cannot reject or amend.

UPSC 2014. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

Answer: (b) The Committee on Estimates

Remember: Estimates = 30, all Lok Sabha, largest · PAC = 22 (15+7), Opposition chair · COPU = 22 (15+7). Ministers cannot be members of any of them.

UPSC 2025. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

1. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office; — CORRECT — Art. 361(1)
2. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office; — CORRECT — Art. 361(2)
3. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House. — CORRECT — Art. 194(2)

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Remember: Art. 361 = President/Governor immunity (official acts + no criminal case during term) · Arts. 105/194 = speech immunity for MPs/MLAs.

UPSC 2025. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion. — CORRECT — Art. 163(1)
2. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned. — WRONG — Art. 200/201

Answer: (a) I only

Remember: Governor’s discretion = express (Art. 163) · President has no express discretion (Art. 74) · only the Governor reserves State Bills (Art. 200).

UPSC 2018. Consider the following statements:

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office. — CORRECT — Art. 361(2)
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office. — CORRECT — Art. 158(4)

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Remember: Governor: term 5 years at the President’s pleasure (156) · pay not cut during term (158(4)) · no criminal case during term (361(2)).

UPSC 2015. Consider the following statements:

1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State. — WRONG — cap is one-third
2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State. — WRONG — elected

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Remember: Legislative Council: ≤ 1/3 of the Assembly, ≥ 40 · Chairman elected by the Council · created/abolished by Parliament (Art. 169).

UPSC 2009. Consider the following statements:

1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State. — WRONG — Art. 165
2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level. — WRONG

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Remember: AG (Art. 76) ← President · Advocate General (Art. 165) ← Governor · advisory jurisdiction = Supreme Court only (Art. 143).

UPSC 2019. Consider the following statements:

1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. — WRONG
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India. — WRONG
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. — CORRECT
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting. — CORRECT — Art. 124(4)

Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only

Remember: Judge removal: grounds in Art. 124(4) (not defined) · procedure in the Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968 · special majority in each House · Speaker may refuse the motion.

UPSC 2014. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

Answer: (c) original jurisdiction

Remember: SC jurisdiction: original (131) · writ (32) · appellate (132–136) · advisory (143) · court of record (129). Centre vs State = Art. 131.

UPSC 2014. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

Answer: (b) the Parliament

Remember: SC strength fixed by Parliament (Art. 124(1)) · now 34 incl. CJI (2019) · ad hoc judges by the CJI with the President’s consent (Art. 127).

UPSC 2022. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. — WRONG
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. — CORRECT

Answer: (b) 2 only

Remember: Advocates Act 1961 · Bar Council of India = professional conduct + legal education + recognition of law colleges · advocate = enrolled court practitioner.

UPSC 2022. Consider the following statements:

1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. — CORRECT
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves. — CORRECT — Arts. 129, 215
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. — WRONG
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court. — CORRECT

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4

Remember: Contempt: power = Arts. 129 (SC), 215 (HC) · definitions = Contempt of Courts Act 1971 (Sanyal Committee) · truth is a defence since 2006.

UPSC 2025. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India: For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

1. List I - Union List, in the Seventh Schedule — NEEDS STATES
2. Extent of the executive power of a State — NEEDS STATES
3. Conditions of the Governor’s office — PARLIAMENT ALONE

Answer: (a) I and II only

Remember: Ratification by half the States: President’s election, executive power (73/162), GST Council, courts, legislative relations, Seventh Schedule, States in Parliament, Art. 368.

UPSC 2025. With reference to India, consider the following: How many of the above established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

1. The Inter-State Council — CONSTITUTIONAL — Art. 263
2. The National Security Council — EXECUTIVE ORDER (1998)
3. Zonal Councils — STATUTORY — States Reorganisation Act, 1956

Answer: (a) Only one

Remember: Inter-State Council = Art. 263 (1990) · Zonal Councils = SR Act 1956 (statutory) · NSC = 1998 executive order.

UPSC 2025. With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule:

1. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and local body assumes total administration; — WRONG
2. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor. — WRONG

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Remember: Fifth Schedule: State keeps power · Governor modifies laws · Union gives directions. Sixth Schedule = ADCs in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram.

UPSC 2023. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

Answer: (a) 1st Amendment

Remember: 1st Amendment 1951 = answer to FR judgments: Arts. 31A, 31B, Ninth Schedule, 15(4), new Art. 19(2) grounds · Nehru era.

UPSC 2019. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru

Remember: Ninth Schedule = 1st Amendment 1951, Nehru, Art. 31B · post-24 April 1973 additions reviewable (I.R. Coelho 2007).

UPSC 2025. Consider the following statements. Which of them are not correct?

1. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States. — WRONG — Art. 243B(2)
2. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years. — WRONG — 21 years
3. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels. — WRONG — Governor, Art. 243I

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Remember: Panchayats: middle tier optional < 20 lakh · age 21 · SFC by the Governor (243I) · SEC (243K) · 29 subjects (11th Schedule).

UPSC 2016. Consider the following statements:

1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years. — WRONG — 21
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period. — CORRECT — Art. 243E(4)

Answer: (b) 2 only

Remember: Panchayat: 5 years · re-election within 6 months · remainder only · age 21. Municipalities mirror it (243U).

UPSC 2024. Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?

1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution. — CORRECT
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution. — CORRECT
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution. — CORRECT

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Remember: IX Panchayats (73rd) · IXA Municipalities (74th) · IXB Co-operatives (97th) · XVIII Emergency · XX Art. 368.

UPSC 2013. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

Answer: (c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas

Remember: PESA 1996 = Part IX extended to Fifth Schedule areas, 10 States · gram sabha supreme · autonomous councils are Sixth Schedule, not PESA.

UPSC 2013. Consider the following statements:

1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission. — WRONG
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India. — CORRECT
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice. — CORRECT — Art. 243G

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

Remember: Economic & social planning = Concurrent List (Entry 20) · Panchayat plans = Art. 243G · NDC and Planning Commission = executive, not constitutional.

UPSC 2025. Consider the following statements:

1. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final. — WRONG — the Speaker decides
2. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India. — WRONG

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Remember: Defection → Speaker/Chairman (reviewable) · other disqualification → President/Governor on ECI opinion · “political party” is in the 10th Schedule.

UPSC 2022. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House. — WRONG — the reverse
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. — CORRECT

Answer: (b) 2 only

Remember: Nominated member: can join a party WITHIN 6 months · independent: can never join · merger needs 2/3 · no deadline for the Speaker (SC suggests 3 months).

UPSC 2017. Consider the following statements:

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. — WRONG
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. — WRONG
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. — CORRECT

Answer: (d) 3 only

Remember: ECI = CEC + 2 ECs (since 1993) · sets poll dates · decides party splits (Symbols Order 1968) · Art. 324.

UPSC 2017. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

Answer: (c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency

Remember: Lok Sabha candidate: citizen · 25 · on the electoral roll of ANY constituency · can contest up to two seats (Sec. 33(7) RP Act).

UPSC 2023. How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

Answer: (d) Four

Remember: Delimitation Commissions: 1952, 1963, 1973, 2002 = four · seats frozen on the 1971 census till after 2026 · orders final, not justiciable.

UPSC 2025. Consider the following statements about Lokpal:

1. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India. — WRONG
2. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson. — WRONG — second half
3. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be. — CORRECT
4. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India. — WRONG

Answer: (a) III only

Remember: Lokpal 2013: covers PM (with safeguards) and officials abroad · age 45–70 · Chair = ex-CJI / ex-SC judge / eminent person · up to 8 members.

UPSC 2022. Consider the following statements:

1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. — WRONG
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. — WRONG

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Remember: AG = Art. 76 · President’s pleasure · Art. 88: Ministers + AG speak in either House, no vote · SG = statutory, no Parliament role.

UPSC 2012. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission — YES — Art. 281
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee — NO
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General — YES — Art. 151
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes — YES — Art. 338

Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

Remember: Laid by the President: FC · CAG · UPSC · NCSC · NCST · NCBC · Linguistic Minorities officer. Not the PAC (Parliament’s own).

UPSC 2026. Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?

1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination. — WRONG — the Act is of 2016
2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology. — CORRECT
3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs). — WRONG — Social Justice & Empowerment

Answer: (b) 2 only

Remember: RPwD Act = 2016 · 21 disabilities · 4% jobs, 5% higher education · Sugamya Bharat (2015) = built env + transport + ICT · NDFDC under MoSJE.

UPSC 2011. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?

Answer: (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

Remember: FC = Art. 280 · every 5 years · Chairman + 4 · tax devolution + grants-in-aid · recommendations are advisory, laid before Parliament (Art. 281).