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UPPCS Polity PYQs.

590 questions asked in UPPCS and other UP exams, arranged in 27 sections. Tap an option to check it.

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Constitutional Development of India 16 questions

Council

1.Which Act for the first time made it possible for Indians to take some share in the administration of their country?

2.By which of the following Acts was the India Council abolished?

3.Match list I with list II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list:

List I

A. Indian Council Act, 1909

B. Indian Council Act, 1935

C. Lucknow Pact

D. Indian Council Act, 1919

List II

1. Beginning of Diarchy

2. 1916

3. Lord Minto

4. Provincial Autonomy

Code:

A B C D

Federal

4.By which one of the following Acts was created the Federal Court in India?

5.Which of the following Acts provided for a federal polity in India?

6.A “federal system” and “diarchy” at the “center was introduced in India by

More questions

7.By which of the following Acts, the system of ‘Chamber of Princes’ with 120 members was created?

8.Under which of the following Act, Supreme Court was established in Calcutta?

9.Which Act of British Government granted One lakh for education in India for the first time?

10.In the Federation established by the Government of India Act of 1935, residual powers were given to the?

11.The provision for the establishment of All India Federation was included in the

12.Which one of the following Acts led to the separation of Burma from India?

13.Which one the following is not an important and permanent constituent in the Constitutional History of India as adopted in the Government of India Act, 1935?

14.Which of the following is correct?

15.The British Parliament passed the Indian Independence Act in :

16.When was interim government formed under the leadership of Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru?

Constituent Assembly, its Functions and Related Committees 27 questions

Drafting

1.Consider the following events and arrange these in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to the last activity—

(I) Appointment of the Drafting Committee

(II) Indian Constitution was adopted and enacted

(III) Date of commencement of Indian Constitution

(IV) Constitution Assembly first met

Select the correct answer from the code given below

Code:

2.Who was the Constitutional advisor during the drafting of Indian Constitution?

3.The number of members included in the Constitution Drafting Committee was

4.Who amongst the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?

5.Who among the following were the members of the drafting committee of the constitution?

(i) N. Gopalaswami

(ii) Jawaharlal Nehru

(iii) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

(iv) Sardar Patel

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

6.The Constituent Assembly set-up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar on

Chairman

7.Who was the Chairman of the Provincial Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

8.Who among the following was the chairman of the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights of the Constituent Assembly?

9.Who was the chairman of the Ad hoc Committee on the National flag?

More questions

10.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:

List-I (Newly Elected Presiding Officer of Vidhan Sabha)

A. Ramesh Tawadkar

B. Kultar Sandhwan

C. T. Satyabrat

D. Ritu Khandari

List-II (State)

1. Goa

2. Punjab

3. Manipur

4. Uttarakhand

Code:

A B C D

11.Constituent Assembly of India was set up-

12.The members of the Constituent Assembly which drafted the Constitution of India were

13.Mention the correct date of the last meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India.

14.Indian Constitution was adopted by Constituent Assembly on-

15.The Constitution of India was enacted on 26 November 1949 by the

16.Who presided over the first meeting of Indian Constituent Assembly?

17.The first Session of the Constituent Assembly was held on

18.President of the Constituent Assembly was-

19.The inaugural session of Constituent Assembly was presides by-

20.On which of the following dates, Constituent Assembly of India adopted the National Flag?

21.Who among the following was appointed Constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly?

22.First draft of the Indian Constitution was prepared by

23.How much time the Constituent Assembly took to frame the Constitution of India?

24.How many Sessions of the Indian Constituent Assembly were conducted for the formulation of Indian Constitution?

25.Who said “The Assembly was the Congress and the Congress was India”?

26.“Can you show we one free country where there are separate electorates? ……The British element is gone, but they have left mischief behind”. Who among the following said the above mentioned statement in the Constituent Assembly debates?

27.Which one of these was the first law minister of India?

Influence of Other Constitutions 12 questions

Concept

1.The concept of Concurrent List in Indian Constitution was borrowed from

2.The concept of Fundamental Rights has been taken from the Constitution of which country?

3.Concept of Directive Principles of State Policy of the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the Constitution of which country?

4.The concept of ‘The Directive Principles of State policy’ in the Indian Constitution has been adopted from the Constitution of-

5.Concept of Federation in India is based on which country?

6.The concept of ‘A Union of States’ in the Indian Constitution has been derived from:

7.The concept of Fundamental Duties in Indian Constitution has been taken from-

More questions

8.Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?

(Provisions) — (Sources)

9.Assertion (A) The Constitution of India has become the longest one.

Reason (R) The chapter on fundamental rights has been borrowed from the model of American Constitution.

Choose the correct answer using the following codes

10.In giving representation to talent, experience and service in the composition of the Council of States, the Constitution makers of India were influenced by the example of –

11.The system of judicial review exist in

12.Who has said it: ‘I have not to beg pardon in connection with the allegation that in the draft of the Constitution, a major part of the Government of India Act, 1935, has again been reproduced’?

Features of Preamble 23 questions

Secular

1.In the Preamble of Constitution adopted on 26 November, 1949, which word/words was/were not present-

1. Socialist

2. Integrity

3. Secular

4. Republic

Choose the correct answer by following code:

2.These two words ‘Secular’ and ‘Socialist’ have been added to the Preamble of the Constitution. Which was this Constitutional Amendment?

3.The word ‘Secularism’ was inserted in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by

4.Which among the following is the correct expression of the term ‘Secular’ in India?

5.Which one of the following describes India as a secular State?

Objective

6.Which one of the following objectives is NOT embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

7.Consider the following statements in regard to The Preamble of Constitution and give correct answer using codes given below-

1. The objectives Resolution by Jawaharlal Nehru finally became Preamble.

2. It is non-Justifiable.

3. It can’t be amended.

4. Preamble cannot override the specific provision of the Constitution.

Code:

8.Which of the following statements about the framing of the Indian Constitutions is correct?

1. Pt. Nehru's objective resolution adopted by the Constituent Assembly had a bearing on the framing of the Constitution

2. The Preamble serves very important purposes.

3. The Constitution has been ordained by the people of India.

4. The Head of the State is elected directly by the people.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

9.The objective of Indian Constitution is reflected in which of the following?

Supreme

10.The concept of ‘Basic Structure of the Constitution’ was propounded by the Supreme Court in the case of

11.In the verdict of which case Supreme Court declared first time that Preamble is not a part of the Constitution?

12.In which of the following cases Supreme Court held that the Preamble forms part of the Constitution?

Liberty

13.How many types of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity in that order have been mentioned in the preamble of Constitution of India?

14.How many types of liberty are mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

15.Which one of the following liberty is not embodied in The Preamble of India?

More questions

16.Who among the following is the First women Speaker in Lok Sabha?

17.Which among the following introduced Preamble in the Constituent Assembly?

18.In the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, which Justice is provided to all its citizens?

19.What is the legal nature of the Preamble of the Constitution?

20.Which of the following words is NOT mentioned in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?

21.What was the exact Constitutional status of the Indian Republic on 26th January 1950?

22.Preamble to the Constitution of India provides for equality of-

(1) Wages

(2) Status

(3) Opportunity

Select the correct answer from the codes given below-

23.Which part of the Indian Constitution has been described as the ‘Soul’ of the Constitution?

Articles, Schedules & Parts of the Constitution 87 questions

1.Which of the following is NOT possible by a law of Parliament under Article 3 of the Constitution?

2.Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament can make laws on State List subject for giving effect on international agreements?

3.A resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha under Article 249 of the Constitution empowering Parliament to legislate on a State subject in national interest remains in force for a period,

4.Article 249 of the Indian Constitution deals with

5.Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament can make laws on State list subject for giving effect to international agreements?

6.Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

7.Which of the following Article is related to the appointment of a Finance Commission by the President of India?

8.Under which Article of the Constitution of India, President of India has power to promulgate ordinance?

9.President rule can be imposed on the State under which Article of the Constitution?

10.Match list I with list II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists

List I (Article)

A. Article 61

B. Article 67(b)

C. Article 94

D. Article 90

List II (Provisions)

1. Removal of Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha

2. Impeachment of President

3. Removal of Vice-President

4. Removal of Speaker

Codes:

A B C D

11.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:

List-I

A. Article 14

B. Article 2

C. Article 111

D. Article 22

List-II

1. By law admit new states

2. Right of Equality

3. Protection against arrest and detention

4. Power of President to give assent to the Bill

Codes:

A B C D

12.Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

A. Article-324

B. Article-315

C. Article-280

D. Article-338

List-II

1. National Commission for Schedule Castes

2. Finance Commission

3. Public Service Commission

4. Election Commission

Code:

A B C D

13.Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, there is provision for the Election Commission?

14.The Constitution of India provides for an Election Commission under Article

15.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:

List-I

A. Article 312

B. Article 155

C. Article 324

D. Article 315

List-II

1. Election

2. Public Service Commission

3. All India Services

4. Appointment of Governor

Codes:

A B C D

16.Which one of the following pairs (Schedule – Subjects) is not correctly matched?

17.Procedure for creation of Legislative Council in States has been described in which Article of the Constitution?

18.Which of the following CAN NOT be dissolved but abolished?

19.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:

List-I

20.In which Article of the Indian Constitution provision has been made for all minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice?

21.Which one of the following pair is not correctly matched?

22.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Institution)

23.Which of the following is correct about the heading of the Article 162 of the Constitution of India?

24.Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?

25.Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

26.Which Article of the Constitution provides for the participation of workers in the management of the industries?

27.Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution provides that the Speaker shall have and exercise a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes?

28.Which Article of the Constitution deals to provide necessary facilities by the States for the use of mother tongue in their primary education?

29.Under which Article special provision has been made for Finance Bill?

30.The Money Bill is defined in which Article of the Constitution of India?

31.Under which Article of the Constitution, Money Bill has been defined?

32.Which among the following (Provision–Part of the Constitution) is not correctly matched?

33.As per Article 300 of the Constitution of India, the legal name of the Government of India is-

34.Annual budget is placed under which Article of the Constitution?

35.Article related to the abolition of untouchability in the Indian Constitution is-

36.Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R)

Assertion (A) : Article 30 of the Constitution of India does not define the term ‘minorities’.

Reason(R) : The Constitution recognizes only linguistic and religious minorities.

Codes:

37.Which Article of the Indian Constitution is related to the Fundamental Rights against child exploitation?

38.Which Article of the Indian Constitution prohibits child to work in any factory?

39.The word ‘Hindu’ in Article 25 of the Constitution of India does not include

40.Which one of the following does not fall within the purview of Article 21 of the Constitution?

41.Which one of the following Articles directs State Government to organize Village Panchayats?

42.Which Article of the Indian Constitution is related to Indian Foreign Policy?

43.Which Article of the Constitution permits the Supreme Court to review its own judgment or order?

44.The provision for the representation of Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha has been made in the Constitution under:

45.Special provision under Article 371 of the Constitution has been made for which of the following State?

46.Under which Article of the Indian Constitution provisions has been made for All India Service?

47.It has been mentioned under which Article of the Constitution that without the proper litigation neither tax could be imposed, nor collected?

48.Constitution can be amended under which Article of the Constitution?

49.Which one of the following is correctly matched?

50.Under which Article of the Indian Constitution procedure established by law has been added?

51.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I

52.Match list-I with List-II regarding High Courts in the State according to the Constitution of India and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

List-I

A. Article 214

B. Article 215

C. Article 216

D. Article 217

List-II

1. Each High court shall be a Court of record

2. High Court for each State

3. Appointment and condition of Office of a Judge of a High Court

4. Constitution of High Courts

Codes:

A B C D

53.Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

Fundamental Right — Article

54.Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:

List-I (Constitutional Provision)

55.Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I

56.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:

List-I

Schedules of the Constitution

57.Consider the following subjects and arrange them into sequential order as mentioned in the Constitution.

I. The union and its territory

II. Fundamental duties

III. Citizenship

IV. Directive Principles of State Policy

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

58.Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I

A. 7th Schedule

B. 8th Schedule

C. 9th Schedule

D. 10th Schedule

List-II

1. Languages

2. Disqualification on the ground of defection

3. Union, State and Concurrent lists

4. Validation of certain Acts

Codes:

59.If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution must be amended?

60.Which one of the following subject is not included in the Union List of Indian Constitution?

61.Which one of the following is not mentioned under the Union List of seventh schedule of Indian Constitution?

62.Consider the following subjects and arrange them into sequential order as mentioned in the Constitution—

I. The union and its territory

II. Fundamental duties

III. Citizenship

IV. Directive Principles of State Policy

Codes:

63.Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—

List-I (Part)

A. Part I

B. Part II

C. Part III

D. Part IV

List-II (Subject)

1. Citizenship

2. Fundamental Rights

3. Directive Principles

4. The Union and its Territory

Codes:

64.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below—

List-I

A. Part IX

B. Part VIII

C. Part IV A

D. Part IX A

List-II

1. Union Territories

2. Municipalities

3. Panchayats

4. Fundamental Duties

Codes:

65.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below—

List-I

A. Fundamental Rights

B. Fundamental Duties

C. Union

D. Emergency Provisions

List-II

1. Part IV A

2. Part III

3. Part XVIII

4. Part V

Codes:

66.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

List-I (Schedule)

A. Third Schedule

B. Fourth Schedule

C. Seventh Schedule

D. Eighth Schedule

List-II (Subject)

1. Allocation of seats in the Council of States

2. Forms of Oath or Affirmations

3. Languages

4. List of subject matter of laws to be made by the Parliament and by State Legislatures

Codes:

67.Under the Constitution of India, which pair of list subjects and related list is not correctly matched?

68.Which one of the following subject comes under Concurrent List?

69.Which one of the following subject is not included in State List of Indian Constitution?

70.The Provision of three legislative lists is found in the following Schedule of the Constitution—

71.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the list—

List-I

72.Which one of the following Schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories?

73.Which one of the following statement correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

74.In order to provide Constitutional protection, State land reforms are added to

75.Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding Anti-Defection Act?

76.Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution is related to—

77.How many items are there in the 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India?

78.The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

79.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—

List-I

A. 7th Schedule

B. 8th Schedule

C. 9th Schedule

D. 10th Schedule

List-II

1. Language

2. Disqualification on ground of defection

3. Distribution of legislative power

4. Validation of certain Articles

Codes:

80.Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

81.Who of the following is not included in the State-list given in the Constitution?

82.Marriage, Divorce, Adaptation are mentioned in which list of the seventh Schedule of Constitution?

83.Which of the following are contained in the Third schedule of the Indian Constitution?

1. Form of oath of office for a Minister

2. Form of oath for Chief Justice of Supreme Court

3. Form of oath of office for President

4. Form of oath by Member of Parliament

Codes:

84.Coelho case is related to which Schedule of the Constitution of India?

85.Indian Constitution is divided into how many parts?

86.Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?

87.Which of the following is NOT correctly matched as per Constitution of India?

Part III – Fundamental Rights 40 questions

Education

1.Which of the following is considered as Fundamental Rights of second generation?

2.Right to Education to all children between the age group of 6 to 14 years is—

3.Right to Education has been included into the Fundamental Rights by the

4.Right to Education has been included into the Fundamental Rights by the

5."Right to Education" was given by which amendment of the Indian Constitution?

6.Article 21A provides free and compulsory education to children in the age group of—

7.The aim of Right to Education Act, 2009 is to make education free and compulsory. This is for the children who are—

8.Assertion (A): The state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age 6 to 14 years.

Reason (R): In a democratic society, right to education is indispensable in the interpretation of the right to development as a human right.

Codes:

Equality

9.In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by five Articles. They are—

10.Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is related to equality before the law?

11.Which of the following Rights are not available to all persons in India?

1. Equality before law

2. Right against discrimination

3. Freedom to move freely throughout the country

4. Right to contest election

Codes:

12.Which of the following is correct?

13.Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality of opportunity to all citizens of India in matters relating to public employment?

Enforcement

14.Which one among the following pairs of Articles relating to the Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended during the enforcement of emergency under Article 359?

15.For the enforcement of Fundamental Rights which of the following is included in the definition of ‘State’ under Article 12?

16.For the enforcement of Fundamental Right, not included in the word ‘State’—

Provided

17.Which one of the following is not among the six Fundamental Rights provided by the Constitution of India?

18.Which of the following Fundamental Rights have been not provided to foreigners?

19.In Indian Constitution, Right to Freedom has been provided by four Articles which are—

Supreme

20.Consider the following statements concerning the powers of the Supreme Court to issue certain writs to stop violation of Fundamental Rights—

(1) The Supreme Court has power to issue writs like Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo warranto and Certiorari.

(2) Parliament may by law empower any other court to exercise within its jurisdiction the powers given to Supreme Court.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Codes:

21.Who is the custodian of the Fundamental Rights?

22.In which of the following cases, Supreme Court held that: “Fundamental Rights enable a man to chalk out his own life in the manner he likes best”?

More questions

23.Which of the following is not part of Article 20 of the Constitution of India?

24.Which Article(s) of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?

25.Consider the following statements about the Fundamental Rights in India:

1. They are guaranteed against State action

2. They are enumerated in Part III of the Constitution

3. They ensure social, economic and political justice

4. They are unlike Bill of Rights in the U.S.A.

Select the correct answer:

26.Fundamental Rights—

27.Fundamental Rights are—

28.Which of the following Fundamental Rights under the Constitution is guaranteed only to the citizens of India and not to foreigners living in India?

29.Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?

30.Which Article gives safeguard to the Fundamental Rights of arrested person?

31.Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Article 30 of the Constitution of India does not define the term ‘minorities’.

Reason (R): The Constitution recognizes only linguistic and religious minorities.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

32.Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Dr. Ambedkar had described Article 32 of the Constitution as the very soul of it.

Reason (R): Article 32 provides effective remedy against the violation of Fundamental Rights.

Codes:

33.Which one of the following rights was described by Dr B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?

34.Under the Preventive Detention a person can be detained without trial for

35.Under the Preventive Detention Act, a person can be arrested without trial for

36.At present in the Constitution of India Right of Property is a—

37.Which of the following is a statutory right but not the Fundamental Right?

38.An offence arising out of ‘Untouchability’ would not make out where?

39.Which of the following is State under the Article 12 of the Constitution?

40.Reservation of schedule caste and schedule tribes in educational institutions is governed by—

Fundamental Duties 13 questions

Constitution

1.Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution on the recommendation of—

2.Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India?

1. Ten Fundamental Duties were added in the Constitution by 42nd amendment Act.

2. In 2002, one more Fundamental Duty was included in the list which is eleventh.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

3.How many Fundamental Duties are in Article 51A of the Constitution?

4.Fundamental duties were incorporated in the Constitution of India in the

5.Under the Constitution of India which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty?

6.Which one of the following is NOT provided in Part IV A (Fundamental Duties) of the Indian Constitution?

7.Fundamental duties of Indian citizens are enumerated in

Importance

8.Which of the following is NOT a fundamental duty?

9.Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty?

10.Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?

More questions

11.Which one of the following is incorrect?

12.Protection of which one of the following is fundamental duty of Indian citizen?

13.Which of the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties is not true?

Directive Principles of State Policy 12 questions

Constitution

1.The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its:

2.Constitution is silent about which of the following Directive Principle of the State Policy?

3.In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in

4.MGNREGA scheme was launched to implement which Article of the Constitution of India?

Environment

5.Which of the following Provision is a part of both Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties?

6.Which one of the following is a Directive principle of State Policy?

7.Which one of the following is not Directive Principle?

More questions

8.The Directive Principles of State Policy may be classified in to which of the following parts for the sake of convenient study?

9.Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?

Directive Principles of State Policy — Article

10.Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?

11.Which of the following is not the Directive Principle of the State Policy?

12.The Directive Principles of State Policy is a cheque which is paid on bank’s convenience. Who told it?

Parliamentary System 11 questions

Presidential

1.Which of the following is not correct regarding Indian political system?

2.Which of the following is not characteristic of the Indian Constitution?

3.Which of the following is correct? The main feature of a Presidential form of Government is/are

Union

4.A Federal polity involves

1. Relations between Union & States

2. Relations among States

3. Mechanism for coordination

4. Mechanism for resolving disputes

Select your correct answer from the codes given below:

5.With reference to the federal system in India, which of the statements is/are correct?

1. States have no right to secede from the Union under the Constitution of India

2. Just advocacy of secession will have the protection of freedom of expression

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

6.The Union Territories get representation in

More questions

7.The Parliamentary form of Government was first introduced in which country?

8.Which of the following statement is correct?

9.Which one of the following points differentiates the Indian Parliamentary system from the British Parliamentary system?

10.In a Parliamentary system of the Government

11.Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer by using the codes given below:

Assertion [A]: India is a democratic country.

Reason [R]: India has a Constitution of its own

Codes:

Centre-State and Inter State Relations 13 questions

Council

1.Which one of the following is not a feature of a Zonal Council?

2.Which of the following states is NOT the member of Western Zonal Council?

3.Who among the following is empowered to establish the inter-state council?

4.On the recommendation of which Commission/Committee, the Inter-State Council was set up in India?

5.The source of the formation of Inter State Council is—

6.Under which Article of the Constitution Inter-State Council is being constituted?

Constitution

7.Center and State Governments gets authorization—

8.Which part and chapter of the Indian Constitution deal with the legislative relations between the Union and the States?

9.Constitution of India provides three Articles for the division of power between Center and States. Which of the two Articles among given Articles regulates the distribution of power?

More questions

10.Division of Constitutional power between Center and State is provided in—

11.In order to impose any international treaty at any part of India or whole India, Parliament could make any law?

12.Which of the following is not related to Center-State relationship?

13.The recommendations of Sarkaria Commission relate to which of the following?

Emergency Provisions 10 questions

Imposed

1.Under which Article of the Constitution Financial Emergency can be imposed?

2.How many times Financial Emergency has been imposed in India?

3.President’s Rule can be imposed for a maximum period of—

4.Under Article 356 of the Constitution of India President’s rule was imposed for the first time in—

Parliament

5.Which one of the following is the time limit for the ratification of an emergency Period by the Parliament?

6.Proclamation of emergency must be placed before the Parliament for its approval—

7.The term of Legislative Assembly could be extended during emergency—

More questions

8.How many emergency provisions are there under the Constitution of India?

9.Which of the following is not the ground for the proclamation of National Emergency?

10.Which one of the following cannot be suspended or restricted even during national emergency?

Parliament-Structure and its Functions 41 questions

1.With reference to the post's in Secretariat of the Parliament, which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

1. Common posts may be created for the Secretariat of each House of Parliament.

2. The Parliament has right to regulate the service conditions of Secretariat staff of either House of it.

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

2.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The President is a part of the Parliament.

Reason (R): A bill passed by the two Houses of the Parliament cannot become a law without the assent of the President.

Select the correct answer using the code given below—

3.With reference to the joint sitting of Parliament, which statement/s is/are correct?

1. Article 109 provides for the joint sitting of both Houses in certain cases.

2. The Speaker presides the joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below—

4.Which of the following is included in Indian Parliament?

5.Which one of the following statements about the Parliament of India is NOT correct?

6.Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): The President is the part of the Parliament.

Reason (R): A Bill passed by the two Houses of Parliament cannot become law without the assent of the President.

In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct?

7.Who amongst the following has the power to withhold assent to a Bill, after it has been passed by the two Houses of Parliament?

8.Parliament can amend the provision on official language of India under the Constitution by:

9.Who can legislate on the subjects which are not included in any of the lists of subjects given in the Constitution?

10.Which one of the following is empowered to alter the boundaries of States under the Constitution of India?

11.Which one of the following is not correct in the matter of formation of new States?

12.Parliament can legislate on a subject in the State list

13.Union Parliament can make law for the matters related to State List—

1. To implement the international treaties

2. With the consent of the concern State

3. If President Rule is imposed in State

4. If Rajya Sabha passes resolution with two third majorities in national interest

Choose the correct answer by using below given codes:

14.A money bill passed by Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by Rajya Sabha also when no action is taken by the Rajya Sabha within—

15.Which of the following has executive power to form a new State?

16.Sovereignty of Indian Parliament is restricted by

17.Which one of the following is not a collective privilege of the members of Parliament?

Parliamentary Procedures

18.Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of Office of Profit.

2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.

3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

19.Who decides Office of Profit?

20.‘Office of Profit’ is defined—

21.The provision for Calling Attention Notices has restricted the scope of the following?

22.Which one of the following motions, the Council of Ministers in India can move?

23.Which of the following motions is related to Union budget?

24.‘Zero Hour’ in the working of the Indian Parliament means

25.‘Zero Hour’ Parliamentary system has been provided by which country?

26.Time of zero-hour in Parliament is:

27.What is meaning of Guillotine in Parliamentary procedure?

28.Quorum of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is—

29.Minimum how many times is it necessary for the meeting of Parliament to be held every year?

Joint Sitting of the Parliament

30.The provision of a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament is mentioned in the Constitution under the following Article—

31.Joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha can take place to resolve deadlock over

32.When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by

33.Who of the following presides over the Joint Session of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha in India?

34.The joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha under Article 108 is summoned by

Financial Matters related to Parliament

35.What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

36.Consider the following:

Assertion (A): Recommendations of Rajya Sabha after a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha and transmitted to the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha within 14 days.

Reason (R): Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.

37.Who among the following decides that a Bill is a Money Bill or not?

38.Which one of the following is responsible for the establishment of ‘Contingency Fund’?

39.Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution is related to Contingency Fund?

40.Who has right to issue money from the Consolidated Fund of India?

41.‘Votes on Account’ permits Union Government to:

President / Vice-President 44 questions

1.Which of the following are the members of the Electoral College for electing the President of India?

1. All the members of the two Houses of Parliament

2. All the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies

3. All the elected members of the U.T. Assemblies

4. All the Governors and Lt. Governors

Codes:

2.With reference to the special address of the President of India, which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

1. The President addresses the joint meeting of both Houses of Parliament at the commencement of the first session after each general election of the House of the People and at the commencement of the first session of each year.

2. The President in his address informs the Parliament of the causes of its summons.

Codes:

3.Indian President is the integral part of the Parliament, because

4.The President can be impeached on the grounds of violating the Constitution by

5.A Member of Parliament or State Legislature can be elected as President of India, but—

6.Under which Article of the Indian Constitution President of India can withhold his assent to a bill passed by both the house of Parliament?

7.By the 70th Constitution amendment, which of the following two Union territories have right to vote in the election of the President?

8.Who among the following is the Head of the Delimitation Commission, constituted in March 2020 to redraw Lok Sabha and Assembly constituencies of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?

9.Who among the following are appointed by President of India?

I. Chairman, Finance Commission

II. The Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission

III. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory

Codes:

10.Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution vests the executive power of the Union in the President?

11.According to Article 53 of the Indian Constitution, the executive power of the Union shall be vested in:

12.Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): The Union Executive is headed by the President of India.

Reason (R): There are no limitations on the power of the President.

13.For the Constitutional matters, who has authority to consult the Supreme Court of India?

14.Who among the following has the Constitutional power to declare any geographical area as Scheduled area?

15.The Constitutional authority, vested with the power of declaring castes and tribes as the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, is the

16.Which one of the following is not a Constitutional prerogative of the President of India?

17.Under which one of the following Articles, the procedure for removal of the President of India through the process of impeachment has been laid down?

18.The President of India may be removed from his Office by the process of impeachment on the basis of which ground?

19.At least how many days, of prior notice is required for the impeachment of the President of India?

20.Under which Article of the Constitution of India, impeachment on President can be imposed?

21.With reference to the election of the Vice-President of India, which is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

1. The acts done by him as Vice-President before such declaration are considered valid.

2. The acts done by him as Vice-President on the day of such declaration are not considered valid.

Codes:

22.Who amongst the following are not included in the Electoral College for the election of the President of India?

23.Election to the Office of the President is conducted by

24.Consider the following statements and select correct answer from the codes given below:

1. President of India shall hold office for a term of 5 years from the date on which he/she takes oath.

2. The President may submit his resignation, if necessary, to the Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India.

Codes:

25.In the absence of the President of India, if Vice-President is not available, who of the following can act as the President?

26.As per the Article 70 of the Constitution of India, who will be the President in absence of President and Vice President?

27.Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to consult the Supreme Court?

28.Which Article of the Constitution of India empowers the President to issue ordinance?

29.Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution empowers the President of India to grant pardon?

30.The vacant post of the President is to be filled up within

31.Who among the following is NOT appointed by the President of India?

32.The Constitution authorizes the President to make provisions for discharge of duties of Governor in extraordinary circumstances under the

33.How many members may be nominated by the President from Anglo-Indian Community, if he is of opinion that the community is not adequately represented in the House of the People?

34.The power of the President to issue ordinance is a relic of

35.Power of the President to grant pardons etc. is a

36.Which one of the following statements about the President of India is not correct?

37."He represents the nation but does not lead the nation". This dictum applies on whom of the following?

Vice-President of India

38.Which one of the following did NOT serve as Vice President before assuming the office of the President of India?

39.Who amongst the following elects the Vice President of India?

1. Member of Lok Sabha

2. Member of Rajya Sabha

3. Members of Legislative Assembly

4. Members of Legislative Council

Codes:

40.The Vice-President of India is elected by the members of an Electoral College comprising

41.The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the:

42.The Proposal relating to dismissal of the Vice President can be presented in

43.The Vice President of India,

1. Is the second highest dignitary of India.

2. Has no formal function attached to his office.

3. Discharges the functions of the President during his absence.

4. Acts as President, if the President resigns or is removed or dies.

Codes:

44.Which of the following statements about Vice-President of India are not correct?

1. In order to be the Vice-President, a person must be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.

2. A member of the State Legislature can be candidate for his office.

3. The term of the office of the Vice-President is the same as that of the President.

4. He can be removed through a formal impeachment.

Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha 32 questions

Lok Sabha

1.What is the quorum to constitute a meeting of Lok Sabha?

2.Which one of the following is authorized to prorogue the session of the house of the people?

3.In the each House of Parliament an ordinary Bill has to go through the following stages

4.Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

States — Allocation of seats in the House of People

5.With reference to the representation of Uttar Pradesh in Parliament, which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(1) Uttar Pradesh has 31 seats allotted for Rajya Sabha.

(2) 80 members of Lok Sabha are elected from Uttar Pradesh.

6.Which one of the following is not correct with regard to the elections to the Lok Sabha?

7.What can be the maximum representation from the Union Territories to the Lok Sabha?

8.After how many days of absence from Parliament without permission can a M.P. be disqualified?

9.Under the Constitution of India, the term of 5 years of the Lok Sabha can be extended once during National Emergency of

10.How many members can table the ‘No Confidence Motion’ against the Council of Ministers in the Lok Sabha?

11.Money Bill can be presented

12.At which of the following stages general discussion on a Bill takes place in the Lok Sabha?

13.Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?

Lok Sabha — Election Year

Speaker/Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

14.To whom does the Speaker of the Lok Sabha address to resign from the office?

15.Which one of the following presides the joint sitting of the Parliament?

16.The function of the Pro-Tem Speaker is to

17.Who is generally appointed as a Pro-Tem Speaker?

18.The speaker of the Lok Sabha makes use of his casting vote only?

19.Who appoints the chairman of Public Accounts Committee?

Rajya Sabha

20.Which of the following are correct about the Rajya Sabha?

1. It is not subject to dissolution.

2. It has a term of five years.

3. One third of its members retire after every two years.

4. Its member shall not be less than 25 years of age.

21.Which of the following Articles made provision that the “Council of States” shall NOT be subject to dissolution?

22.Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): The Council of States is not subject to dissolution.

Reason (R): (As nearly as possible) 1/3 of its members retired on the expiration of every second year.

23.The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved by

24.In which year was Rajya Sabha constituted for the first time?

25.The Upper house of Indian Parliament, Rajya Sabha held its first session on:

26.Officiating Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is

27.Chairman of which House is not its member?

28.Which of the following Bills can NOT be first introduced in Rajya Sabha?

29.The Council of States has exclusive powers in relation to which of the following?

30.A resolution passed under clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for a period not exceeding

31.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

List-I (State)

32.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

List-I (State)

Prime Minister and Council of Ministers 16 questions

Responsible

1.The Prime Minister of India is responsible towards

2.Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers in India is collectively responsible to both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

Reason (R): Members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are eligible to become a minister in Union Government.

Codes:

3.Consider the following statements in the context of Indian Constitution:

1. The Union Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha

2. Union Minister shall hold office during the pleasure of the Prime Minister

Of these:

4.The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible:

1. To the House of the People

2. Under a Constitutional obligation

3. As per Article 75 (3)

4. As per Article 74 (3)

Which of the above statements are correct?

Parliament

5.Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below:

1. The executive power of the Union vests in the Prime Minister.

2. The Prime Minister is appointed by the President.

3. The Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers.

4. The Prime Minister, at the time of his appointment, need not be a member of either House of Parliament

Codes:

6.A person can remain a member of the Council of Ministers without being a member of the Parliament for

7.Which of the following are the Financial Committees of Parliament in India?

1. Public Account Committee

2. Estimates Committee

3. Committee on Public Undertakings

More questions

8.According to the Constitution of India, the ‘Executive Power of the Union’ shall be vested in the-

1. President

2. Prime Minister

Codes:

9.Which one of the following is not a correct situation of the status of a Central Council of Ministers at the time of their resignation?

10.With reference to Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) which one of the statements is/are correct?

1. It came into existence in 1977

2. It is headed by the Cabinet Secretary

Codes:

11.The Office of the Deputy Prime Minister

12.Which of the following statements is correct about prime Minister of India?

13.In India, which one among the following formulates the fiscal policy?

14.Which one of the following expenditure is not charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?

15.Which one of the following terms does not appear in the Constitution of India?

16.On which of the following, a Parliamentary Committee has not been set up?

Various Constitutional Amendments and its Procedure 32 questions

Added

1.By which of the following Amendments of the Indian Constitution word ‘Co-operative Societies’ was added in Article 19(1)(c)?

2.By which Constitutional Amendment the word ‘Cooperative Societies’ was added in Article 19 of the Indian Constitution?

3.By which Amendment, words socialist, secular and national unity and integrity has been added to the Constitution of India?

4.Which Constitutional Amendment added "Integrity" in the Preamble?

5.Fundamental Duties by the citizens were added to the Constitution of India by which Amendment?

6.Which Constitution Amendment added a new Article to the Constitution to provide ‘Right to Education’?

Sabha

7.Which Constitution amendment increased the numbers of Members of Parliament from Lok Sabha to 545 from 525?

8.According to 84th Constitutional Amendment Act, till which year the total number of existing seats in Lok Sabha shall remain unaltered?

9.Which Constitutional Amendment has limited the number of Central Ministers to 15% of the total numbers of the Lok Sabha?

10.The 79th Amendment of the Indian Constitution is related to

National

11.By which amendment of the Constitution, ‘Delhi’ has been made National Capital Region?

12.By which one of the following Constitutional Amendments Delhi has become ‘National Capital Region’?

13.Delhi has been made National Capital Region by which of the following Amendment?

Subject

14.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The President can recommend to the Parliament to change the boundary of any state after seeking views of the concerned Legislature of that state on the subject within specified period.

Reason (R): It is not mandatory for the President to accept the proposal of the concerned State Legislature.

15.By which Constitutional Amendment, the subject of ‘Education’ was transferred from State list to concurrent list?

16.With which subject the 97th Constitution Amendment Act of 2012 is concerned?

Voting

17.By which Constitutional Amendment the voting age was reduced from 21 years to 18 years?

18.Voting right by the youths at the age of 18 years was exercised for the first time in the General Election of

19.Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I

A. Curtailment of the power of judicial review

B. Abolition of Right to property as a fundamental right

C. Lowering the voting age from 21 to 18

D. Addition of the word secular in the preamble

List-II

(i) 61st Amendment

(ii) 42nd Amendment

(iii) 38th Amendment

(iv) 44th Amendment

Codes:

A B C D

More questions

20.According to the Indian Constitution, the Constitutional Amendment of the following topics requires consent of at least half of the State Legislatures-

1. Federal provision of the Constitution

2. Rights of the Supreme Court

3. The process of the Constitutional Amendment

4. Formation of new States or transformation in the borders and names of the States

Code:

21.The First Amendment to the Constitution carried out in 1951 related to

22.Which Constitutional Amendment Act among the following provided for an authoritative text of the Constitution of India in Hindi language?

23.Which of the following Article was inserted by the 42nd Constitution Amendment to provide for participation of workers in management?

24.Which of the following Constitutional amendment formally inducted Sikkim as a State into the Union of India?

25.The authoritative text of the Indian Constitution in Hindi was authorized to be published by which of the following constitutional amendment?

26.According to which one of the following Constitutional Amendments in the Indian Constitution the Right to Property has been abolished?

27.Under which of the following Constitutional Amendments, 30% seats in the village Panchayats have been reserved for the woman in India?

28.52nd Constitution Amendment is related to

29.The Constitutional Amendment Act 104th, 2019 is related to

30.Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts made necessary provisions for the implementation of GST (Goods and Service Tax) regime?

31.Under which Constitutional Amendment Act the G.S.T. was introduced?

32.Match List-I with List-II and select correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Act)

A. The Constitution (Ninety Fourth Amendment) Act, 2006

B. The Constitution (Ninety Fifth Amendment) Act, 2009

C. The Constitution (Ninety Sixth Amendment) Act, 2011

D. The Constitution (One hundred third Amendment) Act, 2019

List-II (Amendment)

1. Amendment in Article 164

2. Amendment in Article 334

3. Amendment in Eight Schedule

4. Amendment in Article 15

Code:

A B C D

Governor of the State / Lieutenant Governor 11 questions

Constitution

1.The Governor of the State is appointed under the Article of the Constitution

2.Consider the following and select the correct answer by using code given below:

1. The Governor shall take oath or affirmation before entering upon his office

2. The format of oath or affirmation is given in the Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution

3. The Governor shall make and subscribe the oath or affirmation in the presence of Chief Justice of the High Court or in his absence senior most Judge of the High Court

4. The process of oath or affirmation is given in the Article 159 of the Indian Constitution

Code:

3.Which among the following Articles of the Indian Constitution empowers the Governor to issue the ordinance?

4.The Governor of a State can promulgate ordinance during recess of Legislature under which of the following Articles of the Constitution?

5.Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, governor has the power to pardon?

More questions

6.Which of the following appoints the Governor?

7.When the same person is appointed as Governor of two or more States, the emoluments and allowances payable to the Governor shall be

8.Ordinance issued by the Governor of the any State should be necessarily approved by?

9.Which of the following statements regarding Governor is not correct?

10.Which among the following constitutes ‘Finance Commission’ to review the financial condition of the Panchayats?

11.Which one of the following States is an exception to the Article 170 as a subject to the provision of the composition of the Legislative Assembly, a State shall consist of not less than sixty members?

State Legislature 12 questions

Legislative Assembly

1.With reference to the composition of the Legislative Council in a state of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) In the Legislative Council there may not be more than one-third members of the total membership of the Legislative Assembly of that state.

(2) The Legislative Council of a state must have at least forty members in it.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2.According to Article 170 of the Indian Constitution, the minimum and maximum number of members of the Legislative Assemblies of any State can be respectively-

3.What can be the minimum strength of Council of Ministers including Chief Minister in the States?

4.What is the ‘Quorum’ required in the State Legislature to hold a meeting?

5.Salary and allowances of the ministers of the State Government is determined by-

6.Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

State — Members in the Legislative Assembly

Legislative Council

7.Under which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution, provision of creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in States is made?

8.How many members of the total number of members of the Legislative Council are elected by the Legislative Assembly?

9.The number of nominated members in the Legislative Council is

10.State Council can hold an ordinary Ordinance up to which of the following time period?

11.The year in which the two Houses of Vidhan Mandal in Uttar Pradesh came into existence

12.No Money Bill can be introduced in the Legislative Assembly of a State, except on the recommendations of

Special Provisions for Some States 7 questions

1.Arrange the following events in a chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

I. Maharaja Hari Singh signed the instrument of Accession

II. Constitution of India was enforced

III. Accession to India ratified by the sovereign Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir

IV. New Constitution of the State of Jammu and Kashmir came into force

Code:

2.The tenure of the Chief Minister of the Jammu & Kashmir is-

3.Among which of the following States nominate two woman representatives to the State Assembly?

4.The nomenclature of the Executive Head of the Government of Jammu and Kashmir was changed from Sadar-i-Riyasat to Governor in 1965 by

5.Articles of the Constitution of India that apply on their own to the State of Jammu and Kashmir, are

6.Article 371 B of the Constitution of India makes special provision for which of the following State(s)?

7.Which region of the country conferred special status under Article 371-J of the Constitution of India?

Supreme Court – Establishment, Empowerment and Jurisdiction 36 questions

Establishment

1.The resignation letter by a Judge of Supreme Court is addressed to-

2.The Supreme Court of India, consist of one Chief Justice and-

3.The minimum number of Judges of the Supreme Court required for hearing any case involving interpretation of the Constitution is

4.After retirement, Supreme Court Judge could practice-

5.A judge of the Supreme Court may resign his office by writing a letter to

6.Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are determined by

7.With reference to the establishment of Supreme Court, which of the statement is/are correct?

1. Supreme Court at Calcutta was established by the Regulating Act of 1773

2. Lemaster was the first Chief Justice of this court

Codes:

8.Federal Court of India was established in which year?

9.Who/which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?

10.Which of the following Article makes provision that “the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all the Courts within the territory of India”?

11.The Supreme Court does hear the cases in New Delhi but can also hear it at any other place

Jurisdiction

12.All the disputes related to the interpretation of the Constitution could be taken to the Supreme Court

13.Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in connection with Constitutional cases?

14.Under which law is it prescribed that all proceeding in the Supreme Court or India shall be in English language?

15.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The Supreme Court of India has exclusive jurisdiction regarding Constitutional validity of Central laws.

Reason (R): The Supreme Court is the Guardian of the Indian Constitution.

Codes:

16.Which one of the following subjects comes under the common jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the High Court?

17.Which of the following courts in India is/are known as the court(s) of Records?

18.According to the latest Supreme Court judgement on Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT), which of the following is true?

19.Consider the following statements and state which one of them is correct?

20.In order to settle the dispute between the Center and the State, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court comes under

21.The advisory powers of the Supreme Court of India imply that it may

22.The Supreme Court of India is a ‘Court of Record’. It implies that-

23.Which one of the following is correct with regard to the power to review any judgment pronounced or order made by the Supreme Court of India?

24.The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

Empowerment – Basic Structure of the Constitution

25.The Supreme Court of India enunciated the doctrine of ‘Basic Structure of the Constitution’ in

26.The Supreme Court of India enunciated the doctrine of ‘Basic Structure of the Constitution’ in

Judicial Review

27.In India, the power of judicial review is enjoyed by

28.In India, the power of judicial review is enjoyed by

Public Interest Litigation (PIL)

29.Who was the Chief Justice of India when public interest litigation (PIL) was introduced to the Indian Judicial System?

30.Public Interest Litigation has been introduced by

Writs

31.Which one of the following writs is issued during the pendency of proceedings in a court?

32.A writ which is issued by the Judiciary and through which executive has been asked to perform under authorized powers, is called as-

33.When the Supreme Court issues a writ to a person or to an institution to perform its duty, it is called

34.Which of the following writs can be filed for the sack of personal liberty or freedom?

35.Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

Lok Adalat – Family Court

36.Which reference to family courts, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Family courts were established under Family Court Act, 1984.

2. It excludes representation by lawyers.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

Attorney General of India / Advocate General of State 6 questions

Attorney General of India

1.With reference to the Attorney General of India, which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(1) A person is appointed as Attorney General, who is qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

(2) The Attorney General can be removed through the same process as the Judges of the Supreme Court

Select the correct answer from the code given below-

Code:

2.Which of the following is not a true statement about the Attorney General of India?

3.Consider the following statements in the context of Attorney General of India:

1. The President shall appoint a person who is qualified as to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court

2. The Attorney General shall receive such remuneration as the Parliament may determine

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

4.Consider the following statements about the Attorney-General of India:

(i) He is appointed by the President of India.

(ii) He must have the same qualifications as are required for a Judge of the Supreme Court.

(iii) He must be a member of either House of Parliament.

(iv) He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament.

Which of these statements are corrects?

5.Who among the following holds his/her office during pleasure of the President?

Advocate General of State

6.Which one of the following is legal advisor to the State Government?

Panchayati Raj and Municipalities 41 questions

1.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The 73rd Amendment of the Constitution is considered to be a watershed in the history of local self government in India.

Reason (R): The 73rd Constitution Amendment conferred the much coveted Constitutional status on Panchayats.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

2.Which part of the Constitution has the provisions for Panchayati Raj System?

3.What is the minimum population below which at the intermediate level the Panchayats are not constituted as per provisions of the Indian Constitution (73rd Amendment Act)?

4.Part IX-A of the Constitution of India gave a Constitutional foundation to the Local Self Government units in the following areas:

1. Rural areas

2. Urban areas

Select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:

Code:

5.Which part of the Constitution has the provisions for Panchayati Raj System?

6.How many items in XII Schedule of Indian Constitution are given for the Municipalities?

7.Which one of the following is not concerned with the Panchayats?

8.All elections to the Panchayats are conducted by-

9.If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:

10.The decision to hold Panchayat Elections under the Constitutional Provisions is taken by

11.The superintendence, direction and control of all elections to the Panchayats are vested in

12.Reservation of seats in Panchayat elections for Scheduled Castes shall not apply to the State of

13.State Election Commissioner for the election of Panchayat would be appointed by-

14.With reference to the recommendations of the Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) on Panchayati Raj, which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(1) The three tier system of Panchayati Raj should be replaced by the two tier system.

(2) A block should be the first point for decentralization under popular supervision below the state level.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

Code:

15.Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R)

Assertion (A): In every State Panchayat shall be constituted at the village, intermediate and district level.

Reason (R): Panchayat at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a State having a population of not exceeding twenty lakhs.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Code:

16.With reference to Panchayats which of the statements is/are correct?

1. Fifty percent seats shall be reserved for the women of SC/ST categories

2. Gram Sabha is a body consisting of all persons living in the village

3. There will be a Panchayat at intermediate level

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

17.Which of the following statements is not true regarding ‘Gram Sabha’?

18.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

List-I (Committee)

A. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

B. Ashok Mehta Committee

C. L. M. Singhvi Committee

D. P.K. Thungun Committee

List-II (Year of Appointment)

1. 1957

2. 1977

3. 1986

4. 1988

Code:

19.When was the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act passed by Indian Parliament?

20.National Panchayati Raj Day in India is celebrated on

21.The Panchayati Raj System was adapted to

22.When was the third tier added to Indian Federal System?

23.The fundamental objective of Panchayati Raj System is to ensure which of the following?

1. People’s participation in development

2. Political accountability

3. Democratic decentralization

4. Financial mobilization

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

24.Three stages system of Panchayati Raj system (73rd Constitutional Amendment Act) includes

25.Who among the following is authorised to make provisions with respect to the composition of Panchayats?

26.The number of seats reserved for woman in Panchayati Raj institutions in U.P is

27.Consider the following sources of Revenue of the Panchayats:

1. Local Authority Grant by Finance Commission

2. Assistance by Central Cooperative Banks

3. Allocations for centrally sponsored schemes

4. NABARD

5. Allocation from State Finance Commission

Of the above, the correct sources of Finance for Panchayats would be

28.Which of the following is related to the theme of ‘Grass Root Democracy’?

29.Nyaya Panchayats in Panchayati Raj system have no powers of awarding imprisonment except in the State of-

30.The tenure of every Panchayat in India is five years from

Municipal Corporation

31.In India the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following places?

Panchayat Samiti

32.The members of the Pachayat Samiti are

33.In Panchayati Raj system the Panchayat Samiti is constituted at the

Gram Panchayats

34.Which of the following taxes is levied by the Gram Panchayats?

Acts – Committees related to Panchayati Raj System

35.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

List-I (Committee)

A. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

B. Ashok Mehta Committee

C. L. M. Singhvi Committee

D. P.K. Thungun Committee

List-II (Year of Appointment)

1. 1957

2. 1977

3. 1986

4. 1988

Code:

36.Consider the following Committees on Panchayati Raj and arrange these in chronological order:

I. Ashok Mehta Committee

II. L.M. Singhvi Committee

III. B.R. Mehta Committee

IV. G.K.V. Rao Committee

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

37.Arrange the following committees on Panchayati Raj in chronological order-

(1) L.M. Singhvi Committee

(2) B.R. Mehta Committee

(3) Ashok Mehta Committee

(4) Thungan Committee

Select the correct answer from the codes given below-

Codes:

38.Arrange these committees related to Panchayati Raj in chronological order:

1. Rao Committee

2. L.M. Singhvi Committee

3. B.R. Mehta Committee

4. Ashok Mehta Committee

Select the correct answer using given codes:

39.Who is considered as the “Architect of Panchayati Raj” in India?

40.Which of the following Committee recommended for according a Constitutional position to Panchayati Raj?

41.When was the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act passed by Indian Parliament?

Election Commission 8 questions

President

1.While deciding any question relating to the disqualification of a Member of Parliament, the President shall obtain the opinion of

2.Who decides disputes regarding disqualification of Members of Parliament?

3.The Election Commissioner can be removed by the

More questions

4.The Election Commission was converted into ‘Three Members Commission’ in the following year:

5.Which one of the following functions is not related to the Election Commission?

6.Study the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below:

Assertion (A) The State Election Commission is a Constitutional authority.

Reason (R) Elections to rural local bodies are overseen by the Election Commission of India.

Codes:

7.The Dinesh Goswami Committee was concerned with

8.Consider the facts given below:

1. Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India.

2. Rama Devi was the first woman Chief Election Commissioner of India.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

Finance Commission 7 questions

1.With reference to Union Finance Commission, which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(1) Finance Commission has a Chairman and six members.

(2) It submits its report to the NITI Aayog.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

Code:

2.Who among the following was the Chairman of the First Finance Commission of India?

3.Finance Commission is constituted after every

4.Given below are two statements one is labeled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The President of India determines the qualifications of the Chairman and Members of the Finance Commission.

Reason (R): Chairman and Members are appointed by the President of India.

Select the answer using the codes given below.

Codes:

5.The primary duty of the Finance Commission of India is—

6.Which among the following is responsible for revenue sharing between the State Government and Local Government?

7.The State Finance Commission is a

Comptroller and Auditor General of India 7 questions

1.The audit report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is examined by

2.The Office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India was created

3.Comptroller and Auditor General have been appointed by the President. He can be removed from his post

4.In which year was accounting separated from auditing and Comptroller and Auditor General’s task only remained confined to auditing the Government accounts?

5.Who is called the Guardian of Public Purse?

6.The audit report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is examined by

7.The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor General vests with

Union and State Public Service Commission 6 questions

Union Public Service Commission

1.Which of the following is correct? Union Public Service Commission is-

2.Union Public Service Commission submits its annual report to

Joint Public Service Commission

3.A Joint Public Service Commission for two or more State can be established by

State Public Service Commission

4.The functions of the State Public Service Commission of Uttar Pradesh can be extended by

5.A member of State Public Service Commission may be removed by-

6.Who can remove the Members of Union Public Service Commission before completion of their term of Office?

National Commission for Schedule Caste and Schedule Tribes 20 questions

1.Provision for appointment of National Commission for SC’s and ST’s has been made in the Constitution under Article

2.The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the administration of tribal areas of which of the following States?

3.The provisions of the sixth Schedule of Indian Constitution are applicable in which of the following states?

Miscellaneous

4.The Constitution of India initially permitted the use of English language for all official purposes for a period of-

5.Which Article of the Indian Constitution describes the Central Vigilance Commission?

6.Consider the following and arrange these in chronological order:

I. Golak Nath Case

II. Keshwanand Bharti Case

III. 24th Constitution Amendment Act

IV. 42nd Constitution Amendment Act

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

7.The National Disaster Management Division in India is the nodal division in the Ministry of Home Affairs for disaster management. Who is the Ex-officio Chairman of the National Disaster Management Authority?

8.Who amongst the following can be the Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission?

9.In the removal of which of the following officials does the Parliament NOT play any role?

1. Judges of the High Court

2. Judges of the Supreme Court

3. Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission

4. Comptroller and Auditor General of India

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

10.Consider the following Political Parties and arrange them in the chronological order of their establishment.

I. Bahujan Samaj Party

II. Samajwadi Party

III. Telugu Desham Party

IV. All India Trinamool Congress

Select the correct answer from the code given below.

Code:

11.Which of the following gave legal basis to extraordinary powers exercised by the Government of India during Lockdown?

1. Mental Health Care Act, 2017

2. Disaster Management Act, 2005

3. Enemy Property Act, 1968

4. Epidemic Disease Act, 1897

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

12.Which of the following labour related Acts have been amalgamated into the ‘Code on Wages, 2019’?

I. Minimum Wages Act

II. Payment of Bonus Act

III. The Contract Labour Act

IV. Equal Remuneration Act

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Codes:

13.National Food Security Act came into force from

14.When the Environment (Protection) Act for the protection and preservation of environment was passed by the Government of India?

15.Regarding the Sovereignty of India, which of the following statements are correct?

1. India is member of Commonwealth.

2. Membership of Commonwealth puts the sovereignty of India at stake

Select the correct answer from the code given below-

Code:

16.Which one of the following is the oldest and most important committee of Indian Parliament?

17.In which year P.C. Hota Committee on Civil Services Reforms was constituted?

18.Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Indian federalism is called ‘Quasi-federal’.

Reason (R): India has an independent judiciary with power of Judicial Review.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

19.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

List-I (Minimum Qualification of Age)

A. 21 years

B. 25 years

C. 30 years

D. 35 years

List-II (Office/Post)

1. President of India

2. Member of Panchayat

3. Member of State Legislative Assembly

4. Member of State Legislative Council

Code:

20.Which among the following is NOT correctly matched?

Bodies — Establishment

Questions are from UPPCS and other Uttar Pradesh exams. If you find a wrong key, tell us on Telegram.